Does God love everybody equally?
By Edgar on Jul 31, 2010 | 2667 viewsIn discussing Calvinism, the question arose: Does God love everybody the same?
If yes - why doesn't he save everybody? How can a loving God send some people to hell?
To this someone said: God loves everybody the same and justice (punishing people for their sins) is a part of his Loving and Good Nature - just as much as Love is.
To this someone else said: yeah - but wouldn't be better if God show mercy to everybody? For mercy is greater than justice, no?
And to this someone else said: How about John 3:16 - for God so loved THE WORLD - not just the elect.
And after this - of course - someone asked: Did Jesus die for the whole world? or just the elect?
I said - just the elect. For otherwise Jesus' sacrifice would've been imperfect. How could he had suffered and died for the entire world? If he did, God would be unjustified to punish some people in Hell because their sins would have been paid for by Christ's sacrifice.
Then we continue asking more questions - and saying more stuff ...
What are some thoughts here?
15 comments
God isn't just love and nothing else. If someone wants to claim mercy or love is somehow greater than justice, he has to prove it. We should be celebrating God's justice just as much as His mercy.
John 3:16 doesn't even address this issue. God loved the world does not in any way mean that God loves each and every person who has ever existed or will ever exist in exactly the same way.
I'd ask Hank about this. He may have better things to say than I would. I am hostile to Calvinism on many fronts, though I recognize that once you assume it, it works well (perhaps too well).
Essentially Jesus' death was a plea bargain agreement. But it only applies if the guilty party signs it.
God knew who was going to accept it (the "elect") ahead of time since He's omniscient but He in no way made the choice for them to accept it. Just because He knew it was going to happen didn't cause it to happen. "Foreknowledge is not causative"
I also would argue that we can judge the character of God by the commandments He gives His people. If God commands us to love our neighbors (which Jesus strongly implies means everyone) and then, just to be sure we know He means everyone, commands us to love our enemies, we can and should not think that God is commanding us to do something that He will not do. While in practice for us we might show partiality to some (kin, those in close proximity), this is because we are constrained by our finiteness--finite time, finite reach, finite money, finite compassion, etc. This is a quality that God does not share.
While the analogy is imperfect--as all our--I like Chad's plea bargain metaphor. I think that it well represents the idea that it's possible that Jesus both died for everyone, yet that some still go to Hell, which doesn't nullify God's justness.
God does favor some people (ex. Jews as God's chosen people). But that doesn't mean He doesn't also love everybody else. He does.
The elect are predestined to salvation. God will get them in the kingdom somehow. They can run, but they can't hide. They will be led to salvation even if they resist that leading.
The rest of us get to choose whether we go to heaven or hell. If we choose God and His Son, we go to heaven. If we reject God and His Son, we go to hell. It's our choice.
I want to add that the Armenian has the same problem -- perhaps -- even bigger one.
Why are people in Hell for eternity? Because they didn't choose to believe in Jesus?
But if God loves everybody equally, why doesn't he reveal himself to them? A little dream, a little miracle, a vision, an apparition - these all seem simple request to get people to believe so that they might be saved. There's no violation of free will here since people can still believe or not after their little personalized miracle.
If God knew you wouldn't believe, why did he create you in the first place?
What does "everyone" or the "world" or "all" mean? This changes in Scripture from context to context, so that in one text "everyone" is limited to a group and in another it's universal. "World" can refer to all of humanity or to the created order in certain texts.
Once this is done I think we are in a much better position to talk about the quesiton, "does God love everyone". I think when one allows for the varied meanings of "world" and "love" one can see that in one sense, God does love everyone equally. He is the creator of the universe and it was declared to be "good." Yet in another sense God loves the elect or the church because that is his bride, his wife, the one with whom he has entered into covenant relationship. In this sense love is limited while in the previous sense it is not.
Henry, what Edgar is saying is that God would not punish this sinner twice for the same sins, once on the Cross and once in hell. That would be unfair and I do believe that God would not allow for such mistreatment of his creation.
But what Edgar said and what Henry said operate under different assumptions. Henry's theory of the extent of the atonement is either saying something along the lines of the cross not being effect to satisfy the demands of God against sinners until they have converted, or sinners specifically are not being punished on the cross (unless there is a possibility I'm not seeing here, sorry if that be true).
Edger seems to saying that the cross effectively satisfied God's demands against sinners at that point in time and they experience it upon their conversion, the effectiveness is not contingent upon faith.
But these assumptions are at the heart of this issue. Did Christ satisfy his demands of sinners for their sins at the point in time when Jesus died and rose from the grave or does that happen upon conversion? Did Jesus effectively intercede for sinners and save them to the uttermost (in the words of Hebrews 7) two thousand years ago or once they have converted? Answering these questions will go a long way to answering this debate, though I believe that it will only end on the other side of the resurrection.
As for me, I lean towards the Reformed understanding of this and believe that God did indeed save sinners on the cross and in the resurrection and by Jesus' priestly intercession two thousand years ago. It is by faith that I experience this salvation. I do believe this to be an objective reality (it exists outside of me, in other words).
This is not what God intends, in my opinion. How could a wholly Holy God allow this kind of behavior without remuneration? The penalty for sin is death. What kind of death? Obviously when one goes and commits adultery he does not drop dead at that moment, so it's not a physical death. It is a spiritual death. Therefore, you can easily sin yourself right out of the grace of God and wind up in hell with the rest of the sinners.
How do you avoid this? Simple. Obedience. Faith without works is dead. Obedience will produce those works that please God. BUT, you also can't WORK your way to heaven either. Hence, you were mostly correct.
And we have known and believed the love that God hath for us. God is love, and he that dwelleth in love dwelleth in God, and God in him.(1 John 4:16)
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